It’s obvious you didn’t read the articles I posted. It is also obvious that you are not quoting my post of 1% being total of slave owners. It is you who are trying to confine the slave owners to Southern states. I did no such thing. I said, as the last article stated, that less whites owned slaves than you said. Post your proof of the percentages you provided. I posted proof that disputes what you said. Read the articles and you’ll see you are wrong. You’re entitled to your own opinion, but you’re not entitled to rewrite history.
I’ll try to address your questions.
It makes no sense to talk about the percentage of all Americans who owned slaves, since slavery at this time (1860 census) was found only in the South, taking the South to mean the slave states, which included four that stayed in the Union. Lumping in the population of northern states, where there weren’t any slaves, is only reasonable if your are trying to artificially reduce the percentage.
It also, IMO, makes no sense to talk about percentage of individuals that owned slaves, since their families benefited equally from the ownership. So if you want to talk about percentage of adult white males that owned slaves, or percentage of white families that owned slaves, we can get somewhere.
Otherwise, there’s no point talking about statistics that aren’t the relevant ones.