If Oversampling democraps was accidental (random) then you would expect they would occasionally have a poll result that oversampled Republicans.
I dare them to present the the results of such a poll broadcast all over as factual.
If the Dems are polling in a city such as Philadelphia, wouldn't they have to have a sampling skewed towards Dems because there ARE more of them in Philly.
I guess my question is: does oversampling mean above an equal average? or does it mean above the known sampling ratios?