Following this logic, Obama’s refusal to enforce the law sets the precedent for Romney to jail abortionists. Right?
How so? It sets a precedent for a president not to jail abortionists if that's the law, but would it really work the other way?
I guess the writer here is arguing that this decision is like the impoundment of appropriated funds, but after Watergate, Congress voted to severely restrict presidential power in that area.