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To: Mariner

He’s better off asking why providing abortifacients is considered “health care” at all. Since when was being with child equivalent to a disease?


50 posted on 02/15/2012 8:08:44 PM PST by Carry_Okie (There has not been a conservative American government for 90 years.)
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To: Carry_Okie

Since when was being with child equivalent to a disease?

Since at least AD 391, as pointed out in another thread:

“[I]n truth, all men know that they who are under the power of this disease [the sin of covetousness] are wearied even of their father’s old age [wishing him to die so they can inherit]; and that which is sweet, and universally desirable, the having of children, they esteem grievous and unwelcome. Many at least with this view have even paid money to be childless, and have mutilated nature, not only killing the newborn, but even acting to prevent their beginning to live.” John Chrysostom, Homilies on Matthew 28:5 (A.D. 391).

http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/religion/2847102/posts?page=1


58 posted on 02/15/2012 8:41:14 PM PST by Apogee
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To: Carry_Okie
He’s better off asking why providing abortifacients is considered “health care” at all. Since when was being with child equivalent to a disease?

Ever since ~0~ decided he didn't want his daughters "punished with a baby." (well, probably before that, but he was very blatant)

101 posted on 02/16/2012 9:51:09 AM PST by madison10
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