In order to buy land or own land in Mexico one must be a citizen. That first Romney bought a huge ranch in Mexico. He was a Mexican citizen.
That is a good point, but is it possible that there is an explanation other than him being a Mexican citizen? For example, we know that it is currently Mexican law that one must be a Mexican citizen in order to buy land in Mexico.
*MY* recollection of Mexican history is that this policy was only implemented after the Mexican Revolution in 1910. Prior to that, non Mexicans could buy and own land in Mexico. It was one of the issues that led to the revolt by the Zapatas in the South, and Pancho Villa in the Northern part of Mexico. They objected to Americanos exploiting their land which they regarded as at the expense of the poor peasants.
When did Gaskell Romney buy this land in Mexico? I'm pretty durn sure it was prior to 1910. Wasn't George born in 1907? I would assume he had bought the land prior to or around that time.