[wagglebee]

If I recall correctly, ensoulment takes place at different times for Jews and non-Jews. For non-Jews it takes place (I think, though I'm no expert) three months after conception.

So, ensoulment happens at different times for Jews and non-Jews? WHERE is this specifically in Scripture?

An unwarranted abortion prior to this is a great sin, though it is not murder and is not a capital offense.

So, does this make first trimester abortion of non-Jews acceptable under Judaism?

For Jews ensoulment happens much later, since an unwarranted abortion is not a capital offense until after the baby's head has emerged from the birth canal.

So, extremely late-term abortion is okay for Jews?

Your rejection of immemorial Sinaitic Tradition is the original Protestant Revolt on which all chr*stianity is based, so I understand where you are coming from.

So, rejection of abortion is somehow a "revolt" against Judaism?

[trisham]

It is my understanding that Judaism and Catholicism are in agreement regarding abortion, but I am not a Jew.

[Zionist Conspirator]

So, does this make first trimester abortion of non-Jews acceptable under Judaism?

No it does not. It makes abortion something other than a capital offense (which is what it becomes after this period). Furthermore, abortion laws in re non-Jews are much stricter than for Jews. For Jews abortion is not a capital offense until the baby's head has emerged. Abortion is mandatory only if the mother's life is actually in danger and ensoulment has not occurred. Otherwise it is strictly forbidden (a capital offense after ensoulment, a sin but not a capital offense before ensoulment).

So, extremely late-term abortion is okay for Jews?

Only if the mother's life is in danger, at which point it is mandatory. Otherwise it is strictly forbidden, though less than a capital offense. After the baby's head has emerged it is a capital offense and may not be done for any reason whatsoever (for non-Jews this is so after the third month).

So, rejection of abortion is somehow a "revolt" against Judaism?

I said no such thing, as you well know. I said that the Catholic position is based on rationalistic "natural law." The Jewish position is based on the dictates of Divine law in any and all situations whatsoever--ie, there is no "natural law," only Divine law.

So, ensoulment happens at different times for Jews and non-Jews? WHERE is this specifically in Scripture?

A Catholic asking where something is found in Scripture. Hilarious.