He did reference the text, knowing its context, and therefore, he ignored the context of the verse in order to make a point that could theologically and contextually be made with other passages.
He did not merely make a logical statement, he blatantly referenced Scripture, knowing other Christians would pick up on the reference, and he did so carelessly, ignoring its context.
IMHO, not only are you completely correct on your understanding, your perseverance is simply astonishing! God bless.
Whatever. Yes, we’ve reached “whatever.” He used the verbal formula that Paul used. He didn’t say “this is Romans 8:31 and this is what Romans 8:31 means.” There is a huge difference, and the fact you can’t see that tells me all I need to know about the future of this conversation. Wish it were different.
Peace,
SR