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To: topcat54
>> Now to Abraham and his Seed were the promises made. , He does not say "And to seeds," as of many, but as of one, "And to your Seed," who is Christ. (Gal. 3:16)<< Look at a previous verse to put the verse you quoted into context.

Gal 3:8And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the heathen through faith, preached before the gospel unto Abraham, saying, In thee shall all nations be blessed.

Look at the promise he was talking about. The promise was that all nations would be blessed. All nations were blessed through the one seed Jesus. He was not talking in this chapter about the promises of land etc.

Again, in the following verse that you quoted he is talking about those who believe in Jesus obtaining the promise (covenant) and becoming “heirs according to the promise” of many nations being blessed.

>> Gal 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither slave nor free, there is neither male nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus. 29 And if you are Christ's, then you are Abraham's seed, and heirs according to the promise.<<

In the above verse “there is neither Jew nor Greek” is in reference to those who accept Jesus as their savior. Whether they are Jew, Greek, or whatever, makes no difference when they “are Christ’s”.

Now, on the other hand, Romans 9:7 also uses the singular but surely doesn’t mean a singular person. Specifying that the seed of Abraham is in reference to the seed of Isaac and not of Ishmael.

Romans 9:7 Neither, because they are the seed of Abraham, are they all children: but, In Isaac shall thy seed be called.

And again using a prior verse to put it in perspective. Romans 9:4 Who are Israelites; to whom pertaineth the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God, and the promises;

Surely a different distinction and meaning for the two scriptures.

Using Gal 3:16 is rather disingenuous to the debate at hand. I truly hope it wasn’t used as a means to deceive. You may need to check your Preterist references to see if they are doing the same thing to you.

95 posted on 01/05/2011 3:19:25 PM PST by CynicalBear
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To: CynicalBear; RJR_fan; The Theophilus; Lee N. Field; Dr. Eckleburg
Look at the promise he was talking about.

In verse 16 Paul specifically says “Now to Abraham and his Seed were the promises (epaggeliai, plural) made.” There is nothing limiting in that use of “promises.” Everything that happen 430 years before the giving of the law is encompassed by the word “promises.”

So you can try and twist out of the plain meaning of the passage; that all the promises to Abraham were made with the Seed, that is, with Jesus Christ, and thus the blessing are shared by all those who are the true children of Abraham.

Until you can get your head wrapped around that truth, the rest will not make any sense.

Using Gal 3:16 is rather disingenuous to the debate at hand.

How's that?

96 posted on 01/05/2011 8:38:11 PM PST by topcat54 ("Dispensationalism -- like crack for the eschatologically naive.")
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