>>I don’t have my magic mushrooms working for me - where is “Russia, Iran and Turkey” in this passage?<<
Magog was one of the sons of Japheth. “The sons of Japheth: Gomer, Magog, Madai, Javan, Tubal, Meshech and Tiras.” Genesis 10:2
The sons of Magog migrated to what is now Russia. The Greeks claimed they were the Scythians. The areas referred to include Russia, Iran, Turkey and other mid east countries. Surely in all of your Bible study you understand today’s countries as they relate to Biblical countries.
>>I think Ezekiel here knows what horses and swords look like.<<
Surely you can’t be telling me that in this verse you revert to a literal interpretation. Not you. How would you think someone in that time would try to understand or describe war implements?
>>Pick one. Either they “are safe” or you have a really strange way of defining “safe” when you have 2/3rds of the Jews being killed.<<
Now you are trying to put two different time periods together. In the war of Ezek 38-39, which is prior to the 7 year Tribulation period, the Israelis are defended by acts of God. It’s during the Tribulation period that 2/3rds of the Jews are killed. Even the Dominionists and Preterist folks agree on the battle of Armageddon don’t they?
Surely in all of your Bible study you understand today’s countries as they relate to Biblical countries.
Yes, and I am aware of the archaeological evidence that dates the Scythians to Ezekiel's time to maybe 300AD where by that time they were bred out of existence.
Since there are no such things as people of Gog and Magog, the claim that they are to invade Israel is equivalent to saying that the Nephilim will follow and eat the few remaining survivors. It just doesn't make sense to make-up activities about a people who haven't been around for over 1500 years.
Since they did indeed exist for a period of time, and since the weapons and transportation described by Ezekiel seem appropriate for that time, why is it impossible for the Futurist to accept that a portion of this composite prophecy was actually fulfilled by Scythians on horseback riding in to attack the inhabitants of Jerusalem during the years they actually did exist? Especially since this was the only time when Jerusalem didn't have walls around it because they were all knocked down by Nebuchadnezzar at the start of the Captivity.
Even the Dominionists and Preterist folks agree on the battle of Armageddon don’t they?
I don't have any idea, maybe we should ask some?
Thanks for the reading material in the latter post - gives me something to look over and ponder.