You are making an implicit assumption that the central limit theorem applies and that the covariance of the distributions are zero, whether you realize it or not.
19 posted on 10/30/2010 12:05:30 PM PDT by MontaniSemperLiberi
(Moutaineers are Always Free)
It is true that I am treating each race as an independent event, and not part of some larger regional trend. So why would the Central Limit Theorem apply here if I'm not breaking down some larger event into uncorrelated smaller events, that is, that these races are all local to begin with?
-PJ
22 posted on 10/30/2010 12:14:40 PM PDT by Political Junkie Too
("Comprehensive" reform bills only end up as incomprehensible messes.)