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From an earlier post:


1 posted on 10/04/2010 7:11:02 PM PDT by James C. Bennett
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To: zot

ping


2 posted on 10/04/2010 7:13:36 PM PDT by GreyFriar (Spearhead - 3rd Armored Division 75-78 & 83-87)
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To: SunkenCiv; blam

New article ping.


3 posted on 10/04/2010 7:14:47 PM PDT by James C. Bennett
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To: James C. Bennett
Hughes said that some of the strongest evidence that the cities could be the home of the Aryans comes from a series of horse burials.

This makes a lot of sense to connect to the Indo-Europeans, then. I have heard it is theorized the reason the Indo-Europeans were able to spread their language around was because they were the first to domesticate the horse.

4 posted on 10/04/2010 7:18:27 PM PDT by Vince Ferrer
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To: James C. Bennett

Yo. Black Athena. Shove over!


6 posted on 10/04/2010 7:44:59 PM PDT by 668 - Neighbor of the Beast ( A window seat, a jug of elderberry wine, and thou.)
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To: James C. Bennett

Can you tell me where Hungarian fits into this tree?


7 posted on 10/04/2010 8:14:25 PM PDT by Amberdawn
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To: James C. Bennett

Hmmm...the land of Nod, perhaps (re. Cain)?


8 posted on 10/04/2010 8:28:28 PM PDT by familyop (cbt. engr. (cbt), NG, '89-' 96, Duncan Hunter or no-vote.)
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To: James C. Bennett

I think 1500-2000 BC is too recent for the ancestral language from which all the Indo-European languages spring. The Anatolian languages like Hittite were probably in Asia Minor already by around 2000 and proto-Greek may have entered Greece somewhere about 2000. But if they mean Aryan in the narrower sense as the ancestor of the Indo-Iranian languages, then the 2000-1500 BC time frame may be about right.


10 posted on 10/04/2010 9:01:24 PM PDT by Verginius Rufus
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To: James C. Bennett

The family tree is fantastic.


12 posted on 10/04/2010 9:49:01 PM PDT by Gertie
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