Technically, it was a question... :)
And, so that we don't argue needlessly, I will try to set out my understanding of what your side is saying. If all of this proves too aggravating to you, I accept that you don't wish to participate. It will not affect our FRiendship. But, it seems as though we cannot settle on this matter and it is important. The reason it is important is that, if we are going to disagree, it seems valuable that we at least agree on what it is we are disagreeing on.
Fair enough.
So, off I wander through the "theological landscape" trying to first describe your position. If I am not mistaken, the RCC believes (and with which you concur) that everything Jesus taught is the "Gospel message" addressed to all men in all times. Now, I will modify this slightly...some of the rituals of the Mosaic Law, however, are done away with. For example, animal sacrifice is gone because Messiah's sacrifice is the new focus. But, parts of it still remain. That is, we still have priests to mediate between men and God, to absolve sin, and to administer the sacraments.
I agree with some of the Mosaic Law being superseded, specifically called out in the NT. However, not all of the instructions of Jesus are to all men. For example, the Great Commission. Another example, the forgiveness of sins granted first to Peter, then all the Apostles.
These are not trick questions (okay, I know there are no questions in the statements, but you get the idea) and I have no trap laid. I am simply trying to insure that when we disagree at the end of the day, we both understand what it is we are disagreeing about. So, would you agree that my description of the use of Jesus' words is correct RCC theology? There is my non-trick question.
My friend, since we arrived at an understanding of each other, you have not been tricky with me. Please go ahead with your line of questioning and discovery.
"I agree with some of the Mosaic Law being superseded, specifically called out in the NT. However, not all of the instructions of Jesus are to all men. For example, the Great Commission. Another example, the forgiveness of sins granted first to Peter, then all the Apostles."
Why is it that you are comfortable saying the so-called Great Commission is not to all men?
What part of the Mosaic Law is "specifically called out in the NT."?
Is there any place in the Gospel records that a summary statement of the Gospel message is made by Jesus?