I am not sure this question centers on the right of the owner of the mortgage to collect but rather the responsibility of the entity claiming to own the mortgage to prove that fact. When you foreclose, you have to prove not only that the borrower did not make payment but that you are the rightful owner. Anyone can claim to own anything but proof is required when you use the courts to enforce your claim.
Cannot argue with what you say. But hard can it be to trace the mortgage? If an investor buys a package of securities including mortgages then all the mortgages in the package would be owned by them.
Is this what the Judge disputed? Or was the ruling simply based on pity for the mortgagee and animosity for the “big bad investor”?
This country his HISTORY if people do not learn to be, in fcat FORCED to be accountable for their actions and stupidity. How about reading the damn document before signing it? How about hiring an attorney?
Caveat Emptor all the way.
In the CASE cited here the plaintiff failed to pay the county $13,150.50 in doc stamp fees. This resulted in the court granting a Motion to Dismiss in favor of the defendants.
Sometimes when they divy up the MBS’s up amoungst investors they end up cutting mortgages into pieces. How about owning only 10% of the house you are trying to foreclose on? Gotta have the paperwork. It took six months for the mortgage company to find my deed and contract after being passed around the country for all those years.
Well you seem to GET IT, Thank Goodness.
If you profess to foreclose on me you had better be able to PROVE IT UP...K.I.S.S.