Where does it say that?
Check out this FReeper thread for that answer. There's a lot of material in there which goes all through it ... :-)
I’ll be honest - I only gave your link the briefest of perusals. I’m familiar with what Dr Reagan teaches and I don’t agree with a good chunk of it. I used to be a premilennial pretribulational dispensationalist...but further study - while at the same time throwing out all I had been taught and allowing the word to speak for itself - caused me to reject all but the premilennial aspect of things. I am no longer a dispensationalist, nor do I hold to a pretribulational rapture position.
I am of the post-tribulationalist (or pre-wrath, but I think it happens at the end of the 70th week) persuasion, and with regard to dispensationalism, I believe that scripture teaches very clearly that there is one body, that being Israel, into which we are grafted. There is no separation between her and the church, nor are we spared from the trials (commonly mistaken for God’s wrath, imo) which may soon come upon the earth. There is one ekklesia, and it began in the wilderness with Moses. God is the same yesterday, today and forever, and His grace applies to all throughout history in the same way.
I simply posed the question because I would like scriptural proof of said pretribulational rapture. For myself, when it came right down to it, I could not find it within.