How about y’all looking at those verses in light of the clear and unambiguous verses?
Remember, sometimes the KJV is poorly translated and/or sometimes our understanding is skewed.
If God is invisible, if he is not a man, if he is the father, and Jesus is visible, a man, and God’s son, then what does that do to those isolated verses?
Does it put those verses at odds with the clear verses?
I certainly believe that there are verses that on the surface support trinitarian ideas, but those verses end up contradicting the clear, unambiguous verses.
There are a few cases where legitimate figures of speech and ancient customs come into play and most westerners do not recognize or understand these terms.
I will always strive to stand firm on the clear verses and try to understand the others in light of them rather than take an ambiguous or indirect verse and interpret it regardless of what the clear verses say.
Once upon a time I was taught to tithe regularly, but my research could not find the use of tithing in the NT at all. Gifts and offerings, yes. Tithing, no. And no, that did not make me popular with clergy. God loves a hilarious giver, not one simply following the law.
I am unaware of ANY translation of Matthew 28:19 where the word NAME is pluralized into names.
If God is invisible, if he is not a man, if he is the father, and Jesus is visible, a man, and God’s son, then what does that do to those isolated verses?
I suggest you read the first chapter of the Gospel of St. John. He spells it out very clearly, the in beginning was the Word, the Word was with God and the Word WAS God and then the Word became flesh.
I certainly believe that there are verses that on the surface support trinitarian ideas, but those verses end up contradicting the clear, unambiguous verses.
As P-M and I have both asked, do you belong to some specific religious group or is this all just based on your personal interpretation of Scripture?
I will always strive to stand firm on the clear verses and try to understand the others in light of them rather than take an ambiguous or indirect verse and interpret it regardless of what the clear verses say.
Do you actually do that or do you just pick and choose which ones to stand clear on?
How about y'all answering my question about what church you belong to or attend?
Remember, sometimes the KJV is poorly translated and/or sometimes our understanding is skewed.
And you obviously know that because you are a much better Hebrew and Greek Scholar than the team of scholars who translated the KJV, right?
BTW since you use the KJV rather than the original languages, don't you find it odd that literally NONE of the KJV Scholars who translated the KJV held to your view of the Trinity?
Does it put those verses at odds with the clear verses?
Have you studied Biblical Hermenutics?
I certainly believe that there are verses that on the surface support trinitarian ideas, but those verses end up contradicting the clear, unambiguous verses.
Have you studied the Original Languages and the Early Church Fathers theological papers? Do you not find it incongruous that those who Cannonized the scripture held to a view of scripture that is wholly opposed to your own? If you trust them on the idea of which books and which verses properly belong in the Bible, then should you not also give some deference to what their interpretation of the Scripture was when they so Cannonized it?
So tell me, what Church, if any, do you attend or are a member? Does your Church agree with your position regarding the Deity of Christ?