I think at all times, those verses have referred to "the Israel of God", i.e., Believing Jews and also those gentiles who are incorporated into this Believing-Jewish community.
It's not my wife's Conversos/Sephardic Jewish (i.e., Spanish-Jewish, on her mother's side, by way of Mexico) ethnic heritage which makes her part of the Israel of God, but rather her belief in Jesus Christ.
She knows this; I wonder why many gentiles don't.
Then why the “huh” on your post to me. Like you did not understand why I said what I did? Did Christ die on the cross for the sins of only those who witnessed it? You can’t keep one part of the Bible for only those people at that time in history and then say , but this one is for everyone forever. I call that “Burger King theology”, in other words “have it your way”.