What I posted has nothing to do with “events preceding the end of history” and have to do with a historical timeline of invading armies and Greek influence on a region that Daniel lived. The Greek language was a widespread language much like English is now. It was the language of commerce for much of the mediterranean region as well as the middle east after Alexander the Great invaded the area. The Coptic/Greek based language did not spread to the middle east until then and Alexander wasn’t in charge of an army until the mid 4th century BC. Since Daniel lived in the 6th century BC, he couldn’t have used Greek words in his text and so this archeologically supports the idea that Daniel did not write the book himself.
Autumnraine wrote:
“Since Daniel lived in the 6th century BC, he couldn’t have used Greek words in his text and so this archeologically supports the idea that Daniel did not write the book himself.”
This is quite incorrect. There is evidence of Greek mercenaries used against the Assyrians in their last attempts to defend the westernmost remains of their empire after the fall of Nineveh in 612 B.C. There was also a great deal of merchantile interchange between the Greeks and Egyptians, Assyrians, and Babylonians sometimes with and sometimes without Phoenician cooperation.
The Greek words in Daniel to which you refer are words for musical instruments, i.e. very specialized items, often of foreign origin, vocabulary for which often contains foreign loan words (because there is no word for such in the given language). This is true of all languages of all eras.
Again, how do you say sitar in English? Or sonata? Or souffle or quiche?