When did being a conservative change to mean adhering to fundamentalist Christian doctrine?
I'd say since the Declaration of American Independence and our Constitution were drawn up.
“Thomas Jefferson owned over 600 slaves.”
“Wythe provided for his slaves, Lydia Broadnax and her son Michael Brown, in his will. The will also contained a provision for Brown's education. Jefferson biographer Fawn M. Brodie has alleged Broadnax was Wythe’s concubine, and Brown was his son. Wythe’s other heir, his grand-nephew, George Wythe Sweeney, decided to avoid this dilution of his fortune by poisoning the slaves with arsenic. In the process, he killed Wythe as well, though Wythe lingered long enough to change his will to eliminate his bequest to his murderer. In Sweeney's trial he was acquitted of murder in Virginia, primarily because of a law that forbade the testimony of black witnesses, a law Wythe ironically had himself penned.”
“A Virginia planter, Georg Mason owned many black slaves.”
Edmund Pendleton, while not a slave owner as being born of modest means, did have this to say...”The king’s representatives in the colony hath not only withheld all the powers of government from operating for our safety, but, having retired on board an armed ship, is carrying on a piratical and savage war against us tempting our slaves by every artifice to resort to him, and training and employing them against their masters.”
Hmmm. So according to your advice, we should all be keeping slaves or at least pass laws to keep them from testifying in court, you know, because our founding fathers were right, correct and moral in any opinion they held 200+ years ago. Do you have any idea how stupid you can look when you use the "founding fathers" as support when you venture outside the realm of anything non constitutional construction? No, I'm sure you don't.