[FreeReign]

Of course corporations don't have unalienable rights.

Now answer my question.

I already did. See my above answer from post #243. Now please move past the Sotomayor created straw man fallacy.

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Now show me where in the constitution the federal government has the power to limit free speech.

They don't have that power.

Good. So then the government doesn't have the constitutional power to prevent individuals from exercising their freedom of speech rights and their freedom of association rights with campaign finance laws targeted against corporations, right?

[P-Marlowe]

Good. So then the government doesn't have the constitutional power to prevent individuals from exercising their freedom of speech rights

Exactly

and their freedom of association rights with campaign finance laws targeted against corporations, right?

Not necessarily.

Corporations are not people. Many corporations are foreign controlled but are registered in the United States. Clearly Congress has the right to limit their participation in the electoral process.

While individual stock holders and individual employees of corporations would clearly have all the rights and privileges of "persons" under the constitution, Corporate business entities have no such inherent rights or privileges.

The fact that so many American corporations are owned and controlled by foreign citizens or even foreign countries should make you think twice about whether you want corporations as business entities having the same rights as individual citizens of the United States.

Giving Corporations the same privileges and rights as individual citizens sets up a system where our country and our representatives could be unduly influenced by the likes of Communist China or Saudi Arabia.

[P-Marlowe]

I already did.

I must have missed it. Are you saying that the Constitution does expressly give statutory corporations the same rights as individual citizens of the United States?

Yes or no.