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To: anniegetyourgun

Sotomayor is not qualified. Apparently she’s either never heard of the Supremacy Clause or chooses to ignore it.

Article VI, Clause 2:

“This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding.”


25 posted on 06/11/2009 2:46:12 PM PDT by PBinTX
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To: PBinTX

The War Between The States (U.S. Civil War) was over states rights as opposed to federally mandated Constitutional rights. You know, that “all men are created equal’ stuff...

Owning another human being was a violation of the U.S. Constitution right from the ‘get go’. I’ve always been amazed that slavery, as economic necessity and as an institution in the South, lasted as long as it did.


29 posted on 06/11/2009 2:56:45 PM PDT by SatinDoll (NO Foreign Nationals as our President!!)
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To: PBinTX
Article VI, Clause 2:

“This Constitution, and the Laws of the United States which shall be made in Pursuance thereof; and all Treaties made, or which shall be made, under the Authority of the United States, shall be the supreme Law of the Land; and the Judges in every State shall be bound thereby, any Thing in the Constitution or Laws of any State to the contrary notwithstanding.”

So, let me ask a question for clarity: If the Constitution is supreme and all states are bound by it, then is the 2nd amendment violated every time a "common sense" restriction is passed by a State, city, county, etc.?

My understanding of the supreme standing of the Constitution is that it totally trumps anything the states do. Therefore, there can be NO LAW passed of any type regarding guns ANYWHERE. Do I have that right?

63 posted on 06/12/2009 4:24:45 AM PDT by Big Giant Head (I should change my tagline to "Big Giant penguin on my Head")
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