From the article:
"Therefore, if these percentages continue to hold true, children of homosexuals have a 4 to 10 times greater likelihood of developing a non-heterosexual preference than other children."
Passed genetically from the parent?
Possibly ... but as I was saying above, the data reported here don't say much about the origins of homosexual desire, which is what the genetic component, if any, would help to explain.
The study is more likely indicative of a relaxation of social norms against acting out on homosexual desires of whatever origin, than they are an indication that homosexuals cause homosexual desires in others.