Then I must say you have ignored every word I have ever said.
Divorce is only available in the case of Adultery, unless you are Catholic with lots of money. In any case that was Jesus's statement. Before Jesus a man could divorce his wife or any reason, but Jesus said it was not to be from the beginning. Implying that man had perverted God's will in the matter.
I see you could not find any “wrath” in my previous posts.
“Divorce is only available in the case of Adultery...”
Not so. The Greek word used in Matthew’s gospel is pornea, which is translated “marital unfaithfulness”, harlotry(including adultery and incest), and idolatry (Matt. 19:9).
Like yourself, some say that Jesus meant adultery, and that adultery constituted grounds for divorce. But there is another Greek word (moicheia) which means adultery; in fact, that word is used in the same verse, thus drawing a distinction.
Pornea can be paralleled with “hardness of heart”, therefore braking the marriage covenant with the Lord. Naturally, this unfaithfulness may take other forms besides sexual promiscuity (Matt. 19:8[citing Moses’ Law]).
Husbands are to love there wives as Christ loved the church and gave himself up for her (Eph. 5:25)
In 1 Corinthians 7: 10-16 we read another example of divorce which did not involve adultery.
Unlike Christ and the church, a man whom beats his wife and/or abuses her psychologically has broken that vow to the Lord to love, cherish, protect, nurture, built up, and serve her.