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To: Wacka; editor-surveyor
Some passages in ancient greek say totally different things than the King James version . Which one is right?

Hmmm. I really doubt it, so I would have to ask you to give an example. I find it hard to believe that the learned scholars of King James time would misinterpret something. Especially with a charge such as this."That a translation be made of the whole Bible, as consonant as can be to the original Hebrew and Greek; and this to be set out and printed, without any marginal notes, and only to be used in all churches of England in time of divine service."

That being said, I'm not sure what we mean by behemoth and leviathan.

105 posted on 03/17/2009 4:43:16 PM PDT by AndrewC
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To: AndrewC; Wacka

I wouldn’t say that the KJV was absolute perfection, but I would say that the errors that were made by glossing over the many idioms of the Hebrew culture were not of relevance at the time of translation.

Now we have scholars that have done detailed work on expanding those idioms, and providing supplemental translations, so the problem is solved anyway.


107 posted on 03/17/2009 5:06:55 PM PDT by editor-surveyor (The beginning of the O'Bummer administration looks a lot like the end of the Nixon administration)
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