[bvw]

Yes, you are sort of right. But not completely. The Germans, in all effect, elected Hitler by going along with his usurpation. And by going along, that was by VOTE by democratically elected representatives.

The Enabling Act, placed before the Reichstag on 23rd of March 1933 was to allow the powers of legislation to be taken away from the Reichstag and transferred to Hitler's cabinet for a period of four years. The act required a two-thirds majority, but passed easily with the support of the Center and Nationalist parties and the suppression of all Communist deputies and several Social Democrats. Thus dictatorial powers were finally conferred, legally, on Adolf Hitler. By July 14th Hitler had proclaimed a law stating that the Nazi Party was to be the only political party allowed in Germany.

Source: http://www.secondworldwar.co.uk/ahitler.html

[j-damn]

*The Germans, in all effect, elected Hitler by going along with his usurpation. *

*The Enabling Act, placed before the Reichstag on 23rd of March 1933 was to allow the powers of legislation to be taken away from the Reichstag and transferred to Hitler’s cabinet for a period of four years.*

So if Congress gave the same power to the President, would you say that all Americans had voted for this act? No, you wouldn’t, so you’re still wrong.