See here.
http://www.freerepublic.com/focus/news/2072570/posts?page=116#116
Show me in the bible where it says conjugal visits were allowed during betrothal.
It's not there.....but it also does not condemn it. Look under..............
I’ll put it to you this way...
How come Joseph wanted to divorce Mary when he found out she was pregnant?
...because they were already married in the sight of God and in the sight of the community.
Google it. It’s all over the web.
The holiness of God would not allow Him to break one of His own admonitions...
“Give ye not even the appearance of evil...”
Msry was not in sin. Otherwise, there would have had to be some judgment made on her pregnancy by the elders. Joseph wanted to divorce her, quietly because he thought she had been with someone else and wanted to spare her public condemnation, which would have been the case had she slept with another man.
Instead, NO ONE protested that she was pregnant. This is because everyone thought she, as Joseph’s wife of betrothal, had been with her husband in lawful conjugal visits.
I think there is a lot of household prep that had to be done before the couple started living together. I did the research on it a long time ago, can’t recall but it is all over the web.
They were not unwed. They were married just not living together. This again is why Joseph wanted to divorce her until God spoke.