Why not? In one instance, the dog is presumably being set upon an innocent victim. In the next, the dog is being set upon a dangerous criminal. The situations are not equivalent.
Why not? In one instance, the dog is presumably being set upon an innocent victim. In the next, the dog is being set upon a dangerous criminal. The situations are not equivalent.
Unless the cops are now judges, there is no way to tell the status of the person the dog is turned loose on. Presumption that they are dangerous criminals is not one that I am willing to make, why are you so confident in it?