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To: DelphiUser; MHGinTN; metmom
In the NT, no one could serve in the office of “bishop” unless he was the husband of one “1” wife.
The Greek for that could just as easily be interpreted to be "At least one wife" the words in Greek used allowed for both meanings and everyone who spoke Greek would understand it that way. in translation, however, we often have a bit of interpretation, here is one instance where the bible was not "translated correctly".

Still haven't figured out how to use that lexicon yet DU? 1 Tim 3:2 the greek is very clear in its usage, it says miav gunaikov, which is clearly one at a time. Had it been used the way your bogus greek interpretation goes, it should have incorporated a comparative like mikroteros which references quantity or amount. Context for the others is comparable. But alas for your frail efforts, it is absent, right along with your logic. So in the case of you and mormonism, it is not a case of translating correctly, it is the case of being able to translate at all.

2,339 posted on 04/10/2008 7:39:58 PM PDT by Godzilla (The early bird may get the worm, but the second mouse gets the cheese.)
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To: Godzilla
Still haven't figured out how to use that lexicon yet DU? 1 Tim 3:2 the greek is very clear in its usage, it says miav gunaikov,....

Now this is interesting Godzilla. Remember in one my previous 'debate contests' with DU he claimed (more than once) that he could not speak Greek?????? Now he claims to be an expert????? LOL!!! I think we just caught him lying red-handed again :)

2,345 posted on 04/10/2008 7:46:37 PM PDT by conservativegramma
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