I think the whole purpose of the “waiting period” on guns, is for the reason of not having one readily available to act out like this man did, in heat of passion, etc.
True, he could have used another form of weaponry, but what if he didn’t want to get his hands dirty? What if he was only able to bring himself to use a gun? Then if he had to wait, he may have thought about his intentions and changed his mind.
Maybe...just maybe.
Generally, people who commit crimes have greater advance notice of their intention than do those who would have to defend themselves against them.
Someone isn't apt to go out, buy a gun, and then use it, all "in the heat of passion", unless there's a gun for sale 15 seconds from where he happens to be and the seller has no objection to selling to someone who's obviously steamed. How often is somebody going to be sufficiently steamed to go through the trouble of buying a gun and remain sufficiently steamed long enough to kill someone with it, and yet be sufficiently under control that they'll never again get steamed at any time more than 24/48/72/whatever hours later?
How does that compare to number of people were declared eligible to purchase firearms, posthumously?
BZZZZT- wrong answer, hope youve got your asbestos undies on...
This guy wasnt acting out in passion, it was a murder/suicide attempt and the firearm was his best way to achieve his goal, he had already thought it out as evidenced by going to the neighbor and then wally world...
Try out your argument on a dead woman who had to die because she had to wait to get a pistol for protection...
They shoulda let him bleed out...
LFOD...