No, it doesn't.
HAHAHHAA...but it does read that way, now doesn’t it?
?
You're right. It says "the right of the people to keep and bear arms shall not be infringed".
Amendment II
A well regulated militia, being necessary to the security of a free state, the right of the people to keep and bear arms, shall not be infringed.
"the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances."
"The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers, and effects, against unreasonable searches and seizures, shall not be violated, and no warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to be seized."
"The enumeration in the Constitution, of certain rights, shall not be construed to deny or disparage others retained by the people."
"The powers not delegated to the United States by the Constitution, nor prohibited by it to the states, are reserved to the states respectively, or to the people."
The same founders who approved of the phrase "the people" in the second amendment, approved of the phrase "the people" in these other amendments in the Bill of Rights. Consistency of definition must be maintained if we are to be able to interpret the intent of the founders. So what definition of "the people" do you propose?