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To: robertpaulsen
robertpaulsen said: "... because it means that right has been violated now for over 200 years, wouldn't you agree? And how is that possible?"

In another posting I pointed out that it is more like 75 years.

But why don't you tell us how long a right must be infringed before it ceases to exist? Is a century long enough? How about a decade?

The answer to your question, is that it is possible for our rights to be violated for lengthy periods of time because there are people like you who will twist the meaning of words to accomplish your own ends, regardless of what the words actually mean.

265 posted on 11/21/2007 1:59:08 PM PST by William Tell (RKBA for California (rkba.members.sonic.net) - Volunteer by contacting Dave at rkba@sonic.net)
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To: William Tell
"In another posting I pointed out that it is more like 75 years."

Oh. Well. That's different.

"But why don't you tell us how long a right must be infringed before it ceases to exist?"

I don't think a right IS being infringed. You do. So you tell me.

"The answer to your question, is that it is possible for our rights to be violated for lengthy periods of time because there are people like you who will twist the meaning of words to accomplish your own ends, regardless of what the words actually mean."

Those bastards!

269 posted on 11/21/2007 3:51:21 PM PST by robertpaulsen
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