The first amendment doesn’t limit the protection of speech or the press or religion. It does limit the protection of the right to assemble to “the people”. You might try reading it before asking these questions.
Perhaps you’d like to provide evidence then that women were prevented from assembling under the grounds they had no such right or that the government could invade the homes of single women or citizens who were renting and without property. I’d like to see a judicial case that suggests only white property owners had those rights prior to the 14th Amendment. I’m betting you won’t find any because “the people” applied to all citizens.
You have noticed a difference in the wording of the protections of these rights and you assert that the difference constitutes a "limitation" in the case of the right to assembly.
Perhaps you would be kind enough to point out the various ways in which this perceived "limitation" is evident.
How would or nation's laws be different if the First Amendment had included "Congress shall make no law abridging the freedom of peacable assembly"?