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To: robertpaulsen
If we're looking for the original meaning of "the people" in the second amendment, then 1792 is the place to go.

That Act lays out who serves in the militia, not who "the people" is. If it did then women had no other rights as per the BoR and we know that's not true because you yourself have told us they did have a right to free speech.

You're trying to have it both ways while providing no evidence that "the people" had different meanings depending on what right we're talking about.

238 posted on 11/21/2007 10:34:27 AM PST by Reaganwuzthebest
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To: Reaganwuzthebest
"That Act lays out who serves in the militia, not who "the people" is."

Article I, Section 2 tells us who "the people" were in 1792 -- they were the voters. Who were the voters? Rich white guys.

The second amendment protects the RKBA of "the people". Who were "the people"? They were the voters. Rich white guys.

The Militia Act of 1792 tells us who was in the Militia. Rich white guys. See a pattern developing? Not much of stretch to say the second mendment protected the RKBA of those in a Militia.

241 posted on 11/21/2007 10:51:16 AM PST by robertpaulsen
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