No. Only "the people" voted (Article I, Section 2). Women didn't vote in 1792. Propertyless citizens didn't vote in 1792. Children (who are citizens) didn't vote. Still don't.
"The people" were the rich white guys. They voted. They were the Militia. Their RKBA was protected under the second amendment.
"A single woman in the year 1800 had just as much a right to keep a firearm in her home as a male."
Yes, she did. The second amendment, however, didn't protect it.
The “white guy” applied to the militia back then yes because males do the fighting. But again as has been pointed out to you a million times the Second Amendment is not strictly about a militia and never has been. It makes no sense then to apply every right in the Constitution as prescribed to “the people” to all citizens except the 2nd Amendment. The inconsistency is so obvious as to make the argument absurd.