What? That the "well regulated Miltia" contained in the second amendment refers to an organized, armed, trained and accoutered state Militia with officers appointed by the state"?
I got that from the U.S. Constitution, Article I, Section 8, Clause 16 and the Militia Act of 1792.
"The Militia Act of 1792, written by those same founders, makes it pretty clear that the ‘militia’consists of all abled bodied male citizens"
It consisted of white, male, citizen landowners. The same group that voted. "The people". The enfranchised body politic. "Full" citizens.
The point being, not everyone. Not every person. Not women. Not non-whites.
"I suspect the modern world would expand that to all able bodied citizens period, which is pretty much the same as ‘the people’
Excluding children, felons, prisoners, the insane, the mentally ill, yeah, pretty much.
George Mason IV (December 11, 1725 – October 7, 1792) was a United States patriot, statesman, and delegate from Virginia to the U.S. Constitutional Convention. Along with James Madison, he is called the "Father of the Bill of Rights". For all of these reasons he is considered to be one of the best loved "Founding Fathers" of the United States.
Now, come back and tell us that the Father of the Bill of Rights is an idiot, who didn't know what he really meant by militia.
The point being, not everyone. Not every person. Not women. Not non-whites.
IOW, you have parsed every word and phrase and interpreted them to be as exclusionary as possible at every opportunity.
But now, thanks to the 14th Amendment, recognized in Parker, and brought up by your very self, "it" now consists of everyone.
“It consisted of white, male, citizen landowners. The same group that voted. “The people”. The enfranchised body politic. “Full” citizens.
The point being, not everyone. Not every person. Not women. Not non-whites.”
That same caveat applied to every other use of the ‘People’ in the Bill of Rights as those folk also had no real protected rights to speach, vote, or even religion.