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To: reaganaut1

forgot to mention, it is not unilateral.

BOTH parties assumed the risk the collateral would devalue.

In bankruptcy, splitting the unsecured portion of the loan from the value of the collateral is logical.


28 posted on 10/08/2007 6:41:57 AM PDT by longtermmemmory (VOTE! http://www.senate.gov and http://www.house.gov)
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To: longtermmemmory

But it takes an adversary proceeding to strip off the negative equity in a bankruptcy case. Most mortgagees cannot afford such a proceeding.


45 posted on 10/08/2007 7:24:03 AM PDT by Unknowing (Now is the time for all good men to come to the aid of their country.)
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