secession was/IS a lawful means of a state/states departing the union, should it become necessary in their informed self-interest. furthermore,i don't believe you can show us ANYTHING in the Constitution, which indicates (much less proves) that secession was a POWER/RIGHT ceded to the central government.
remember, the individual STATES created the union. as such, the STATES remain free to MODIFY, withdraw from and/or ABOLISH the union at any time.
free dixie,sw
Yes, it did-- after the war. Perhaps the clearest statement is in
the case Texas v. White (74 U.S. 700). Chief Justice Chase, writing
for the court in its 1869 decision, said:
"The Constitution, in all its provisions, looks to an indestructible
Union, composed of indestructible States. ... Considered, therefore, as
transactions under the Constitution, the Ordinance of Secession, adopted
by the convention and ratified by a majority of the citizens of Texas, and
all the Acts of her Legislature intended to give effect to that ordinance,
were absolutely null. They were utterly without operation in law. ... Our
conclusion, therefore, is, that Texas continued to be a State, and a State
of the Union, notwithstanding the transactions to which we have referred."
The entire decision is available on the Web at
http://supct.law.cornell.edu/supct/cases/historic.htm