[GovernmentIsTheProblem]

"The guy is clearly a crackpot. The Indus Valley script cannot be Vedic since they predate the arrival of the Aryan invaders of India."

There most likely were not "Aryan invaders."

[Verginius Rufus]

So how did the Indo-European languages show up in India? Did Berlitz send a team of instructors and teach the proto-Sanskrit language to millions of people?

There is a band of related languages from western Europe to India which have similarities (in grammar and vocabulary) which can only be explained by descent from a common ancestor, or at least from a group of similar dialects, in the remote past. The Indo-European languages of India and those of Iran are particularly closely related. Unless the language family began in India and spread outward from there, which seems highly unlikely, then someone had to have brought it to India, whether Aryans or Berlitzers.