I'm sure that each of the two words does have one or more definitions that are different from the other word.
I'm simply pointing out to you that Webster's as I cited earlier does say that their definitions can be synonymous, meaning that each word has at least one definition in common with the other word.
I've underlined the word "can" in each of my posts. You ignore it and give me an example of how the definitions can be different.
Don't do that. Address my point.
Read Gondring's post 4,994 and get back to me.