It's perfectly reasonable. It's called the Intentional fallacy and it was put forward in the 1930s or so by a group of American critics called the Southern Agrarians. All oustponekly conservative and Christian. 'Meaning' cesom from the text not an author's intentions. Whatever they were.
Were her explanations of equal value to your ideas generated by her text?
*Says you.
It's called the Intentional fallacy and it was put forward in the 1930s or so by a group of American critics called the Southern Agrarians. All oustponekly conservative and Christian.
*They were lovely men. They were not infallible nor is their theory indefectible