In that matter, the senator hadn't disclosed to Congress that he first sold land to a friend's limited liability company back in 2001 and took an ownership stake in the company. He collected the seven-figure payout when the company sold the land again in 2004 to others. Reid portrayed the 2004 sale as a personal sale of land, not mentioning the company's ownership or its role in the sale." Is there any legitimate reason he would have done any of that (for the economically impaired among us, me being one)?