[Know your rights]

Prohibition wasn't prohibition because personal consumption was allowed, and I say that made it a failure

So is "personal consumption was allowed" part of your definition of "failure," or did allowing personal consumption cause its failure?

and I say that's how it's different than todays drug laws.

Are today's drug laws by definition not a failure because personal consumption is not allowed? If not, then by what definition are they not a failure?

[robertpaulsen]

"So is "personal consumption was allowed" part of your definition of "failure,"

Allowing personal consumption is a failure of prohibition -- a failure of the concept. And I say it was one of the reasons Prohibition failed.

"Are today's drug laws by definition not a failure because personal consumption is not allowed?

It's rather that today's drug laws are undermined by "allowing" personal consumption. That "allowing" could be medical marijuana, decriminalization, low-priority enforcement, or simply law enforcement looking the other way.