Sorry, I disagree with your basic premise. What Catholic scholars thought, based on CC tradtionj, is irrelevant. My interst is what God's word plainly says. Let's start there. God used words that have meaning. There is no indication that passage is figurative, anymore than the later chapters are figurative. Show me where I got the language wrong. Thanks.
I see you either didn't read the piece, or you didn't comprehend it. He isn't any more arguing for a "figurative" interpretation than Galieo was.