You use the term "law" quite oddly. Apparently, any act of self-defense is an act of "law", even before the Greeks and Romans had invented the subject in its roughly modern form, or before codifiers such as Hammurabi came along. For kicks, you're compounding this by equating self-defense and robbery, as both "coercive force".
Defining a term of years for a homestead claim to become effective is an act of self-defense?
Beg that question.