I already asked you where Congress is given any kind of right to do this. You blew right by that question and began falsely attributing opinions to me. You've continued to do so in this last post.
One more time, Congress would have that "right" as the only logical conclusion consistent with your foolish and imaginary principle that a Constitutional grant of authority for one branch of government, could be exercised by other branches, unless that grant explicitly stated it was to be an exclusive grant of power.
The fact is, that in the entire body of the Constitution, there are only two such references that explicitly grant sole or exclusive authority, and then only in narrowest of circumstances. That would mean that by your own ill-founded principle, that could be no separation of powers!
One more time, those words are your albatross, either learn to live with their consequences or retract them.