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To: Aquinasfan
The question is, do we presume that these laws are the result of a law-giver, as are all other laws?

You mean, like common law? The laws of grammar?

94 posted on 12/07/2005 11:46:39 AM PST by Right Wing Professor
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To: Right Wing Professor
You mean, like common law? The laws of grammar?

Yes. The former reflects a universally recognized moral laws (i.e., theft is wrong). The fact that all people recognize the natural moral law as binding on all people at all times indicates the existence of a timeless moral authority, since only an authority can bind someone to a law.

The laws of grammar correspond to universally recognized first principles of reason, such as the law of non-contradiction. Only minds can reason, so the source of eternal principles of reason must be an eternal mind.

120 posted on 12/07/2005 12:27:32 PM PST by Aquinasfan (Isaiah 22:22, Rev 3:7, Mat 16:19)
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