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To: MamaTexan

If the FDA had done its homework and banned it before it hit America, I daresay the babies' rights would have been better protected.
The subject of the thread is the 'illegality' of marijuana.....please try to stay on the thread topic.

>>
The real thread topic is: does the federal government have the right to enforce drug laws, even when drug dealers and libertarian fools who buy their propaganda think they don't?


117 posted on 11/26/2005 6:32:13 AM PST by Appalled but Not Surprised
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To: Appalled but Not Surprised
People smoke pot regardless of the law. The law makes criminals out of otherwise law-abiding citizens. These silly laws stop very few people from smoking pot. And you think the commerce clause is the way government protects people? Your arguments are getting more and more ridiculous.
126 posted on 11/26/2005 6:45:26 AM PST by mlc9852
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To: Appalled but Not Surprised
No. God created THC in the pot plant as an insecticide--the chemical kills bugs that eat the plant.

Glad you have such an inside track to God's intentions.

The real thread topic is: does the federal government have the right to enforce drug laws, even when drug dealers and libertarian fools who buy their propaganda think they don't?

So tell us....do they?

You've YET to answer any direct question asked by myself or anyone else on this thread.

You make outlandish statements, try to change the subject when backed into a corner, contradict yourself, and source NOTHING to back your assertions. When you question the intelligence of some of the more (obviously) intelligent posters, you only make your argument weaker and yourself look foolish.

I will make this very simple so even you can understand-

Where SPECIFIALLY does the government get it's authority to tell the PEOPLE what they can possess or ingest?

Hint; ...it's not in the Commerce Clause-

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Thomas Jefferson, on February 15, 1791, wrote that the ICC "does not extend to the internal regulation of the commerce of a State...but to its external commerce only, that is to say, its commerce with another State, or with foreign nations, or with the Indian tribes."

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OR the general welfare clause-

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They are not to do anything they please to provide for the general welfare, but only to lay taxes for that purpose. To consider the latter phrase not as describing the purpose of the first, but as giving a distinct and independent power to do any act they please which may be good for the Union, would render all the preceding and subsequent enumerations of power completely useless. It would reduce the whole instrument to a single phrase, that of instituting a Congress with power to do whatever would be for the good of the United States; and as they sole judges of the good or evil, it would be also a power to do whatever evil they please ... Certainly no such universal power was meant to be given them. It was intended to lace them up straightly within the enumerated powers and those without which, as means, these powers could not be carried into effect.
Thomas Jefferson, Opinion on National Bank, 1791

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Government can only exercise what it as been expressly given, so where exactly does this 'regulatory power' come from?

148 posted on 11/26/2005 7:04:04 AM PST by MamaTexan (I am NOT a 'legal entity', nor am I a *person* as created by `law`!)
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