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To: Plutarch
nor do any Shakespeare plays refer to events after 1604.

Macbeth is clearly a paean to James I, who took the throne only 9 months before the death of DeVerre. Among other things, the portrayal of witches as evil movers of fate is a catering to the fanaticism of James. Was Oxford channeled, to write a play probably first performed in 1606, complete with allusions to current events, two years after his death?

Likewise, the farewell scene at the end of Tempest makes clear reference to the theatre in which it is being performed and is a farewell for the playwright as much as for Prospero. Was this staging anticipated by the brilliant Oxford, to match a time a seven years after his demise? All the signs say Will both wrote and spoke the words.

13 posted on 09/19/2005 11:22:18 PM PDT by LexBaird (tyrannosaurus Lex, unapologetic carnivore)
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To: LexBaird
Since there is no even slightly convincing evidence to the contrary, and since many of us have memorized his name and some of his works, why don't we just leave it as it is? What is to be gained by picking over the bones?
16 posted on 09/20/2005 12:03:05 AM PDT by Mind-numbed Robot (Not all that needs to be done needs to be done by the government.)
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