[Toddsterpatriot]

Why the wages are significantly higher in Western countries?

Could it be related to higher productivity? Which might be related to those evil money grubbing capitalists providing that filthy capital?

Marx (among other things) had in common with freemarketeers the strong and blind belief in Smith/Ricardo theories.

Marx had blind belief in the theories of Smith?

So he logically concluded that workers will be reduced to the subsistence, that capital will become monopolized/concentrated, that global trade will fuse the world economy into one and that capitalism will reach dead end.

Smith believed these things?

Freemarketeers differ from Marx that they do not look into the logical consequences of their theory.

What are the logical conclusions of these free trade theories? And we should be more like Marx with his deep look into the future? ROFLOL!

But we know that things did not go the way Marx predicted or freemarketeers wanted.

We know that things haven't worked the way your buddy Marx wanted. What exactly went wrong with what freemarketeers wanted?

[A. Pole]

"So he logically concluded that workers will be reduced to the subsistence, that capital will become monopolized/concentrated, that global trade will fuse the world economy into one and that capitalism will reach dead end."

Smith believed these things?

I said that Marx "logically concluded" these things. Very different.

[A. Pole]

What exactly went wrong with what freemarketeers wanted?

Read again: "40 hours work week, prohibition of child labor, retirement funds, abolishment of slavery, progressive taxation etc, etc ..."