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To: 1rudeboy; newgeezer
After a legal battle, the dealer was permitted to sell the coin at auction on the condition he split the proceeds with the Mint.

So if you're a king of Egypt the mint doesn't "seize" the coins, just splits the profits, but if you're an American citizen then those coins belong to the Mint.

The government has already allowed others who have the coins to sell them (including, apparently, her father). What's the difference now?

75 posted on 08/25/2005 10:50:23 AM PDT by SittinYonder (Nemo me impune lacessit)
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To: SittinYonder

If a cop lets you off with a warning, he is under no legal obligation to give you one again.


82 posted on 08/25/2005 10:55:13 AM PDT by 1rudeboy
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To: SittinYonder
So if you're a king of Egypt the mint doesn't "seize" the coins

Actually, it's unclear whether the king or the coin dealer was in possession of that single coin. (Not that it matters.)

What's the difference now?

The government has not relinquished its rights to these 10 coins (there hasn't yet been a "legal battle" such as the one that resulted in that sale). If Langbord can hire the right lawyers, she might have a chance.

Again, if these 10 were originally obtained illegally, I'm thinking seizure is justified. If your lawyers can negotiate a deal, more power to you (and money to them, obviously).

94 posted on 08/25/2005 11:05:59 AM PDT by newgeezer (Just my opinion, of course. Your mileage may vary.)
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