So, I guess my position should be based on the Bible and not on any fundamental rights Israelis have today? Tell me, I'm confused.
You sure are--just like everyone else who thinks that "fundamental rights" exist independently of the Biblical G-d. So where do the come from? That mythical "social contract" that Locke and Jefferson and all those "18th century" rationalists were so fond of pretending existed (even though they knew it didn't)?
I'm afraid that the notion of rights divorced from ultimate meaning is not at all "self-evident," whatever the Declaration of Independence says.